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NEW QUESTION: 1
A male client has been hospitalized with congestive heart failure. Medical management of heart failure focuses on improving myocardial contractility. This can be achieved by administering:
A. Nitroglycerin (Nitrol) 1 inch topically every 4 hours
B. Furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg po every morning
C. O22 L/min via nasal cannula
D. Digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg po every day
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside given to clients in heart failure to improve their myocardial contractility. (B) Furosemide is a loop diuretic given to clients in heart failure to promote diuresis. (C) O2is given to clients in heart failure to increase oxygenation and to prevent or treat hypoxemia. (D) Nitroglycerin is a nitrate given to clients in heart failure to increase their cardiac output by decreasing the peripheral resistance that the left ventricle must pump against.

NEW QUESTION: 2

A. Option B
B. Option C
C. Option A
D. Option D
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
https://docs.aws.amazon.com/Route53/latest/DeveloperGuide/resource-record-sets-values-weighted-alias.html

NEW QUESTION: 3
Which description of TACACS+ administrator authentication and authorization on the Cisco ASR 5000 is true?
A. The Cisco ASR 5000 uses a privilege-level information element to restrict users to command sets that correspond to their assigned administrative role.
B. The Cisco ASR 5000 uses an administrator-level attribute value pair to restrict users to command sets that correspond to their assigned administrative role.
C. The Cisco ASR 5000 uses a privilege-level attribute value pair to restrict users to command sets that correspond to their assigned administrative role.
D. The Cisco ASR 5000 uses an administrator-level information element to restrict users to command sets that correspond to their assigned administrative role.
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 4
ThetaBank has extended substantial financing to two mortgage companies, which these mortgage lenders use
to finance their own lending. Individually, each of the mortgage companies has an exposure at default (EAD)
of $20 million, with a loss given default (LGD) of 100%, and a probability of default of 10%. ThetaBank's risk
department predicts the joint probability of default at 5%. If the default risk of these mortgage companies were
modeled as independent risks, what would be the probability of a cumulative $40 million loss from these two
mortgage borrowers?
A. 1%
B. 0.01%
C. 0.1%
D. 10%
Answer: A