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NEW QUESTION: 1
A risk practitioner is summarizing the results of a high-profile risk assessment sponsored by senior management. The BEST way to support risk-based decisions by senior management would be to:
A. map findings to objectives.
B. quantify key risk indicators (KRls).
C. provide a quantified detailed analysts.
D. recommend risk tolerance thresholds.
Answer: A

NEW QUESTION: 2
Migration is using only one tape but more tape drives are available. Which stgpool option should be reviewed?
A. mountpoints
B. migprocess
C. drives
D. numdrives
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION: 3
For a 10 year interest rate swap, what would be the worst time for a counterparty to default (in terms of the maximum likely credit exposure)
A. 2 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
D. Right after inception
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Right after inception' is incorrect as the interest rate swap (IRS) would be valued at close to zero right after inception and the credit risk would be minimum. Choice 'a' (ie 10 years, at maturity) is incorrect as at maturity there would be no more cash flows to exchange, and the replacement value of the contract would again be close to zero.
Therefore the worst time for the counterparty to default is somewhere between inception and maturity - in fact the range of possible outcomes for the contract increases with the passage of time, and we should find the worst time to default to be a later date. However, towards maturity, the value of the contract starts to go towards zero again, and the maximum value is reached around 7 years. 2 years is too early for the maximum to be reached for the 10 year IRS, and therefore choice a is the correct answer.